KARTET 2022

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KARTET 2022 results to be declared by next weekend, says Education Minister

The Karnataka State Education Minister B C Nagesh said the Department of School Education and Literacy to release the Karnataka Teacher Eligibility Test (KARTET 2022) result by next weekend

Karnataka Teachers Eligibility Test (KARTET) 2022 exam was held on 6th November 2022, Final key answers of Paper 1 and 2 were released, for more details CLICK HERE

KARTET 2022 : Final Key Answers released

The Department of School Education and Literacy, Karnataka has released the final key answers of Karnataka Teacher Eligibility Test 2022 (KARTET),

Exam was held on 6th November 2022, 

Instructions CLICK HERE
Paper 1 CLICK HERE
Paper 2 CLICK HERE
KARTET 2022 : Official Key Answers released

The Department of School Education and Literacy, Karnataka has released the official key answers of Karnataka Teacher Eligibility Test 2022 (KARTET),

Exam was held on 6th November 2022, Objections if any can be submitted till 17th November 2022

Instructions CLICK HERE
Paper 1 CLICK HERE
Paper 2 CLICK HERE
KARTET 2022 : Official key answers to be released this weekend

The Karnataka State Minister of Education B C Nagesh announced the Karnataka Teacher Eligibility Test 2022 (KARTET) to be released this weekend,

He tweeted the Karnataka Teacher Eligibility Test (K-TET) has been conducted smoothly.

Out of the total candidates who have applied, 92 percent of the candidates have appeared for the examination. Answer key will be published by this weekend, for more details CLICK HERE

KARTET 2022 : Tentative Key Answers released

The Department of School Education and Literacy, Karnataka conducted Karnataka Teacher Eligibility Test 2022 (KARTET) on 6th November 2022,

The tentative key answers along with question paper been released for reference, official key answers to be released shortly

Paper 1 CLICK HERE
PAPER 2
Social Science CLICK HERE
Maths – Science CLICK HERE
KARTET 2022 : Additional instructions to candidates released

The Department of School Education and Literacy, Karnataka has released the additional instructions to the candidates appearing for the Karnataka Teacher Eligibility Test 2022,

Exam is scheduled to be held on 6th November 2022, for more details CLICK HERE

KARTET 2022 : Instructions to candidates released

The Department of School Education and Literacy, Karnataka has released the instructions to the candidates appearing for the Karnataka Teacher Eligibility Test 2022, Exam is scheduled to be held on 6th November 2022, for more details CLICK HERE

KARTET 2022 : Admit card released

The Department of School Education and Literacy, Karnataka has released the admit card of  Karnataka Teacher Eligibility Test 2022,

The candidates who have applied for the exam can download the admit card by using their login details,

Examination is scheduled to be held on 6th November 2022, for more details and download admit card CLICK HERE

CTET – Previous Papers with Key

As the pattern and Syllabus of KARTET and CTET are similar, to held in Exam preparation the previous exams papers with Key answers are provided for reference

PAPER 1 & 2

Jan 2022 CLICK HERE
Dec 2021 CLICK HERE
Jan 2021 CLICK HERE
Dec 2019 CLICK HERE
July 2019 CLICK HERE
Dec 2018 CLICK HERE
Key Answers CLICK HERE
KARTET Exams – Practice One Liners

It is Mandatory for the Students aspiring to secure Job as Government Teachers to clear Karnataka Teachers Eligibility Test (KATET)

To help in preparation daily KARTET Subject Wise important practice One Liners been given to make preparations to face examination with ease

CDP 100+ one liners CLICK HERE
KARTET 2022 notification released

The Department of School Education and Literacy, Karnataka has released the notification regarding Karnataka Teacher Eligibility Test 2022,

The interested and eligible candidates can apply online from 1st to 30th September 2022, Examination is scheduled to be held on 6th November 2022

Notification  CLICK HERE
Instructions CLICK HERE
Apply CLICK HERE
Reference Books CLICK HERE
KARTET 2022 Model Papers released

The Department of School Education and Literacy, Karnataka has released 7 Set of KARTET 2022 Model Papers of Paper 1 and Paper 2

Paper 1 CLICK HERE
Paper 2 CLICK HERE
Paper 3 CLICK HERE
Paper 4 CLICK HERE
Paper 5 CLICK HERE
Paper 6 CLICK HERE
Paper 7 CLICK HERE
KARTET Exams – Practice Questions

It is Mandatory for the Students aspiring to secure Job as Government Teachers to clear Karnataka Teachers Eligibility Test (KATET)

To help in preparation daily KARTET Subject Wise Practice Questions been given to make preparations to face examination with ease

CDP – Part 5 CLICK HERE
CDP – Part 4 CLICK HERE
CDP – Part 3 CLICK HERE
CDP – Part 2 CLICK HERE
CDP – Part 1 CLICK HERE
PEDAGOGY (Urdu Medium)

KARTET Pedagogy Books of Child Development and Pedagogy (CDP), Mathematics, Science, English, Social, Urdu, Much Helpful to plan preparations

CDP (1) CLICK HERE
CDP (2) CLICK HERE
CDP (3) CLICK HERE
Urdu (1) CLICK HERE
Urdu (2) CLICK HERE
English (1) CLICK HERE
English (2) CLICK HERE
Maths (1) CLICK HERE
Maths (2) CLICK HERE
Phy Science (1) CLICK HERE
Phy Science (2) CLICK HERE
Bio Science (1) CLICK HERE
Bio Science (2) CLICK HERE
Social (1) CLICK HERE
Social (2) CLICK HERE
KARTET Exams – SMART NOTES

It is Mandatory for the Students aspiring to secure Job as Government Teachers to clear Karnataka Teachers Eligibility Test (KATET)

To help in preparation daily KARTET Subject Wise SMART NOTES been given to make preparations to face examination with ease

Maths Pedagogy (1) CLICK HERE
English Pedagogy (8) CLICK HERE
English Pedagogy (7) CLICK HERE
English Pedagogy (6) CLICK HERE
English Pedagogy (5) CLICK HERE
English Pedagogy (4) CLICK HERE
CDP (1) CLICK HERE
English Pedagogy (3) CLICK HERE
English Pedagogy (2) CLICK HERE
English Pedagogy (1) CLICK HERE
KARTET 2022 to be held in November

The Karnataka Sate Minister of School Education and Literacy B C Nagesh said the Karnataka Teachers Eligibility Test (KARTET) to be held twice in a year

But this year as the 15,000 Graduate Primary Teachers (GPT) recruitment process is underway so the Karnataka Teachers Eligibility Test (KARTET) to be held only once,

He added the KARTET is scheduled to be held on 6th November 2022, Notification to be released shortly

KARTET Exams – Practice One Liners

It is Mandatory for the Students aspiring to secure Job as Government Teachers to clear Karnataka Teachers Eligibility Test (KATET)

To help in preparation daily KARTET Subject Wise practice One Liners been given to make preparations to face examination with ease

CDP Series 1 CLICK HERE
KARTET 2021 results announced

The results of KARTET Paper 1 and 2 has been released by the Department of Education, Karnataka, Exam was held on 22nd August 2021, 

Results CLICK HERE
Instructions CLICK HERE
KARTET 2021 final Official Key Answers released

The Official final Key Answers of KARTET Paper 1 and 2 has been released by the Department of Education, Karnataka, Exam was held on 22nd August 2021, If any objections can be filed by 31st August 2021

Paper 1 CLICK HERE
Paper 2 CLICK HERE
Instructions CLICK HERE
KARTET 2021 Official Key Answers released

The Official provisional Key Answers of KARTET Paper 1 and 2 has been released by the Department of Education, Karnataka, Exam was held on 22nd August 2021, If any objections can be filed by 31st August 2021

Paper 1 CLICK HERE
Paper 2 CLICK HERE
Instructions CLICK HERE
KARTET 2021 TENTATIVE KEY ANSWER

The tentative (Un – Official) Key Answers of KARTET Paper 1 and 2 Prepared by Margadarshi Study Circle, Koppala (Exam was held on 22nd August 2021)

Paper 1 CLICK HERE
Paper 2 (Maths & Science) CLICK HERE
Paper 2 (Social) CLICK HERE
KARTET Exam likely to be held once in 6 months

The Karnataka Primary and Secondary Education Minister B C Nagesh said the Karnataka State Government is considering to conduct KARTET (Karnataka State Teachers Eligibility Test) once every 6 months, he added this will facilitate the eligible candidates to take the Exams more in number and get eligibility

KARTET 2021 TENTATIVE KEY ANSWER

The tentative (Un – Official) Key Answers of KARTET Paper 1 and 2 Prepared by Subject Teachers Forum (Exam was held on 22nd August 2021)

PAPER 1

1st Lang Kan CLICK HERE
2nd Lang Eng CLICK HERE
CDP CLICK HERE
Maths CLICK HERE
EVS CLICK HERE

PAPER 2

1st Lang Kan CLICK HERE
2nd Lang Eng CLICK HERE
CDP CLICK HERE
Maths CLICK HERE
Science CLICK HERE
Social CLICK HERE
KARTET 2021 EXAM ON 22nd August 2021

The Karnataka State Teachers Eligibility Test (KARTET) 2021 to be held on 22nd August 2021, In-spite of weekend Curfew been imposed due to ongoing COVID 19 pandemic, the Examination is to be held as scheduled, for more details CLICK HERE

KARTET 2021 STUDY MATERIALS

The Most likely content of Child Development & Pedagogy, Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Kannada Medium), Prepared by : Students Learning center

300 CDP MCQ’s CLICK HERE
Physics (KM) CLICK HERE
Chemistry (KM) CLICK HERE
Biology (KM) CLICK HERE
KARTET 2021 admit card released

The Department of Public Instructions, Karnataka has released the KARTET 2021 admit card, the candidates who have applied for the Exam can download using the User Name and password, Exams are scheduled to be held on 22nd August 2021

Instructions CLICK HERE
List of Nodal Officers CLICK HERE
Admit card CLICK HERE
Press Note CLICK HERE
KARTET 2021 Reference Books list released

The Department of Education, Karnataka has released the Karnataka Teacher Eligibility Test 2021 reference books list to prepare for the Examination scheduled to be held on 22nd August 2021, for complete list CLICK HERE

KARTET 2021 

The Department of Education, Karnataka has released the Karnataka Teacher Eligibility Test Notification 2021,

The interested and eligible candidates can apply online from 1st July to 20th July 2021, the candidates can pay Exam fees by 22nd July 2021, Examination is scheduled to be held on 22nd August 2021

Press Note CLICK HERE
Notification (KM) CLICK HERE
Notification (EM) CLICK HERE
Instructions CLICK HERE
Apply Online CLICK HERE
List of Reference Books CLICK HERE
KARTET 2021 PRACTICE PAPERS

To help students prepare for the KARTET 2021 Examination to be held on 22nd August 2021, Everyday Practice Paper is provided here for Practice

19th July 2021
Social (1) CLICK HERE
16th July 2021
English (3) CLICK HERE
15th July 2021
CDP (7) CLICK HERE
14th July 2021
English (2) CLICK HERE
13th July 2021
CDP (6) CLICK HERE
12th July 2021
Maths (1) CLICK HERE
11th July 2021
EVS (1) CLICK HERE
10th July 2021
English (1) CLICK HERE
9th July 2021
Science (2) CLICK HERE
8th July 2021
CDP (5) CLICK HERE
Science (1) CLICK HERE
7th July 2021
CDP (4) CLICK HERE
6th July 2021
CDP (3) CLICK HERE
5th July 2021
CDP (2) CLICK HERE
4th July 2021
CDP (1) CLICK HERE
KARTET – MATHS

KARTET 2021 Maths Preparation Resources of Arithmetic, Algebra & Geometry, Much Helpful to plan preparations

DSERT BOOKS

10th Std
Maths EM (1) CLICK HERE
Maths EM (2) CLICK HERE
9th Std
Maths EM (1) CLICK HERE
Maths EM (2) CLICK HERE
8th Std
Maths EM (1) CLICK HERE
Maths EM (2) CLICK HERE

PU BOARD BOOKS

2nd Year
Maths (1) CLICK HERE
Maths (2) CLICK HERE
1st Year
Maths CLICK HERE
KARTET – SCIENCE

KARTET 2021 Science Preparation Resources of Physics, Chemistry, Biology, Much Helpful to plan preparations

Physics CLICK HERE
Chemistry CLICK HERE
Biology CLICK HERE
Science MCQ’s (1) CLICK HERE
Science MCQ’s (2) CLICK HERE

DSERT BOOKS

10th Std
Science EM (1) CLICK HERE
Science EM (2) CLICK HERE
9th Std
Science EM CLICK HERE
8th Std
Science EM  CLICK HERE

PU BOARD BOOKS

2nd Year
Physics (1) CLICK HERE
Physics (2) CLICK HERE
Chemistry (1) CLICK HERE
Chemistry (2) CLICK HERE
Biology CLICK HERE
1st Year
Physics (1) CLICK HERE
Physics (2) CLICK HERE
Chemistry (1) CLICK HERE
Chemistry (2) CLICK HERE
Biology CLICK HERE
KARTET – SOCIAL 

KARTET 2021 Social Science Preparation Resources of Indian History, Indian Geography, Indian Economy and Indian Polity

Ancient History CLICK HERE
Medieval History CLICK HERE
Modern History CLICK HERE
Geography (1) CLICK HERE
Geography (2) CLICK HERE
Polity (1) CLICK HERE
Polity (2) CLICK HERE
Economy (1) CLICK HERE
Economy (2) CLICK HERE

DSERT BOOKS

10th Std
Social KM (1) CLICK HERE
Social KM (2) CLICK HERE
Social EM (1) CLICK HERE
Social EM (2) CLICK HERE
9th Std
Social KM (1) CLICK HERE
Social KM (2) CLICK HERE
Social EM (1) CLICK HERE
Social EM (2) CLICK HERE
8th Std
Social KM (1) CLICK HERE
Social KM (2) CLICK HERE
Social EM  CLICK HERE
MOCK TESTS

KARTET 2021 Social Science (Urdu Medium) Mock Test Paper – Prepared by Mohammed Azam, Basavakalyan, GPUC (HS), Hatti Gold Mines

Social (UM) CLICK HERE
PSYCHOLOGY HANDBOOKS

1st & 2nd year PUC Psychology Handbooks (English and Kannada Medium) Helpful for CDP Subject Preparations

Psychology 1 (KM) CLICK HERE
Psychology 2 (KM) CLICK HERE
Psychology 1 (EM) CLICK HERE
Psychology 2 (EM) CLICK HERE
KARTET PREVIOUS SOLVED PAPERS

KARTET Previous Exams Solved Papers (Kannada Medium) of Paper 1 and Paper 2, Prepared by : Sparda Karnataka School of Banking, Vinay Complex, Karnataka Association, B H Complex, Shivamogga

English CLICK HERE
EVS CLICK HERE
CDP CLICK HERE
Maths CLICK HERE
Science CLICK HERE
KARTET PREVIOUS PAPERS

Social Science (Kannada Medium) Previous years Karnataka Eligibility Test Question Papers with Key Answers

2019 CLICK HERE
2017 CLICK HERE
2015 CLICK HERE
2014 CLICK HERE
METODOLOGY OF TEACHING

The Handbooks (501 to 509) on Elementary Education in India: A Socio- Cultural Perspective,, Pedagogic Processes in Elementary Schools,

Learning Languages at Elementary Level, Learning Mathematics at Elementary Level, Learning Environmental Studies at Primary Level,

Understanding children in inclusive context, Community& Elementary Education, Learning in Art, Health & Physical and Work Education at Elementary Level, Learning Social Science at Upper Primary Level, Learning Science at Upper Primary Level

English Medium CLICK HERE
Kannada Medium CLICK HERE
Urdu Medium CLICK HERE

MCQ BANK

Paper 1 and Paper 2 (10th std Multiple Choice Questions Handbook : English & Kannada Medium), Helpful to Plan the preparations and Score Marks in KARTET 2021

ENGLISH MEDIUM
Maths CLICK HERE
Science CLICK HERE
Social CLICK HERE
KANNADA MEDIUM
Maths CLICK HERE
Science CLICK HERE
Social CLICK HERE

PRACTICE PAPERS

Paper 1 and Paper 2 (CTET), Helpful to Plan the preparations and Score Marks in KARTET 2021

JAN 2021
Paper 1 CLICK HERE
Paper 2 CLICK HERE
Languages CLICK HERE
KEY Answers CLICK HERE
DEC 2019
Paper 1 CLICK HERE
Paper 2 CLICK HERE
Languages CLICK HERE
KEY Answers CLICK HERE
JULY 2019
Paper 1 CLICK HERE
Paper 2 CLICK HERE
Languages CLICK HERE
KEY Paper 1 CLICK HERE
KEY Paper 2 CLICK HERE
DEC 2018
Paper 1 CLICK HERE
Paper 2 CLICK HERE
Languages CLICK HERE
KEY Answers CLICK HERE

STUDY NOTES

Paper 1 and Paper 2 (Kannada Medium), Helpful to Plan the preparations and Score Marks in KARTET 2021

CDP  CLICK HERE
English  CLICK HERE
Geography  CLICK HERE
History  CLICK HERE
Science  CLICK HERE
Pol Science  CLICK HERE
Social Methodology  CLICK HERE
All Subjects Handbook  CLICK HERE

METHODOLOGY OF TEACHING

Paper 1 and Paper 2 (English Medium), Helpful to Plan the preparations and Score Marks in KARTET 2021

English (1) CLICK HERE
English (2) CLICK HERE
Mathematics CLICK HERE
Science CLICK HERE
Social Science CLICK HERE
EVS (1) CLICK HERE
EVS (2) CLICK HERE
CDP CLICK HERE
MOCK EXAMS

As per the Schedule announced, the KARTET 2021 Examination will be held on 22nd August 2021, Here is an opportunity to Analyse your Preparations Language Pedagogy by attending MOCK Exams based on Most Likely Question of Science and Pedagogy that may appear in the upcoming Examinations and Reorganise your studies to Score good marks (Note : Each Mock Exam consists of 30 Questions on Science Content and Pedagogy, attempt all to analyse your preparations)

MOCK EXAM 1

KARTET / CTET

amk

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 

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1 / 30

Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the magnetic field produced by a current- carrying wire?

 

2 / 30

A current flows in a wire running between the S and N poles of a magnet lying horizontally as shown in the figure below:

                                   

The force on the wire due to the magnet is directed

3 / 30

The frequency of electricity produced by DC generator is equal to

4 / 30

An electric motor is a device which transforms

5 / 30

The shape of the magnetic field lines produced by a current carrying conductor are

6 / 30

A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer forming a loop and a magnet is:

A: Held stationary

B: Moved away along its axis

C: Moved towards along its axis

There will be a induced current in

7 / 30

The force exerted on a current carrying wire placed in a magnetic field is zero when the angle between wire and the direction of magnetic field is

8 / 30

A current carrying conductor is held in exactly vertical direction. In order to produce a clockwise magnetic field around the conductor, the current should be passed in the conductor

9 / 30

A soft iron bar is inserted inside a current-carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid

10 / 30

A constant current flows in a horizontal wire in the plane of the paper from east to west as shown in figure. The direction of magnetic field at a point will be north to south.

Magnetic Effect of Electric Current NCERT Exemplar Problems

 

11 / 30

Choose the incorrect statement.

12 / 30

In the arrangement shown in figure, there are two coils wound on a non-conducting cylindrical rod. Initially, the key is not inserted. Then the key is inserted and later removed. Then

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current MCQs

 

13 / 30

Commercial electric motors do not use

14 / 30

A uniform magnetic field exists in the plane of paper pointing from left to right as shown in figure. In the field an electron and a proton move as shown. The electron and the proton experience.

Electron Proton Movement in Magnetic Field Lines

15 / 30

For a current in a long straight solenoid N and S-poles are created at the two ends. Among the following statements, the incorrect statement is

16 / 30

A circular loop placed in a plane perpendicular to the plane of paper carries a current when the key is ON. The current as seen from points and (in the plane of paper and on the axis of the coil) is anti-clockwise and clockwise respectively. The magnetic field lines point from to A. The N-pole of the resultant magnet is on the face close to

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current NCERT Exemplar Problems

 

17 / 30

If the key in the arrangement as shown below is taken out (the circuit is made open) and magnetic field lines are drawn over the horizontal plane ABCD, the lines are

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current MCQs

 

18 / 30

Choose the incorrect statement from the following regarding magnetic lines of field

19 / 30

In electric motor, to make the coil rotating continuously in the same direction, current is reversed in the coil after every half rotation by a device called

20 / 30

Direction of rotation of a coil in electric motor is determined by

21 / 30

When current is parallel to magnetic field, then force experience by the current carrying conductor placed in uniform magnetic field is

22 / 30

The factors on which one magnetic field strength produced by current carrying solenoids depends are

23 / 30

The nature of magnetic field line passing through the centre of current carrying circular loop is

24 / 30

The pattern of the magnetic field produced by the straight current carrying conducting wire is

25 / 30

Which of the following statement is not correct about the magnetic field?

26 / 30

Relative strength of magnetic field at a point in the space surrounding the magnet is shown by the

27 / 30

Magnetic effect of current was discovered by

28 / 30

The most important safety method used for protecting home appliances from short circuiting or overloading is

29 / 30

To convert an AC generator into DC generator

30 / 30

The strength of magnetic field inside a long current carrying straight solenoid is

MOCK EXAM 2

KARTET / CTET

amk

Control & Co - ordination

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1 / 30

The movement of a plant part in response to the force of attraction exerted by the earth is called

2 / 30

Electrical impulse travels in a neuron from

3 / 30

The dramatic changes in body features associated with puberty are mainly because of the secretions of

4 / 30

A doctor advised a person to take injection of insulin because his

5 / 30

Which of the following control and regulate the life process?

6 / 30

Which of the following controls the involuntary actions in the body?

7 / 30

Iodine is necessary for the synthesis of which of the following hormone?

8 / 30

The number of pairs of nerves which arises from the spinal cord are

9 / 30

Dandelion flowers open the petals in bright light during the daytime but close the petals in dark at night. This response of dandelion flowers to light is called

10 / 30

A growing seedling is kept in a dark room. A burning lamp is placed near to it for a few days. The top part of seedling bends towards the burning candle. This is an example of

11 / 30

The stimulus in the process of thigmotropism is

12 / 30

The growth of tendrils in pea plants is due to the

13 / 30

The main function of abscisic acid in plants is to

14 / 30

The movement of shoot towards light is

15 / 30

Spinal cord originates from

16 / 30

Posture and balance of the body is controlled by

17 / 30

Which of the following statements are true about the brain?

(i) The main thinking part of brain is hind brain.

(ii) Centres of hearing, smell, memory, sight, etc., are located in fore brain.

(iii) Involuntary actions like salivation, vomiting, blood pressure are controlled by the medulla in the hind brain.

(iv) Cerebellum does not control posture and balance of the body.

18 / 30

Which of the following statements are true?

(i) Sudden action in response to something in the environment is caller reflex action

(ii) Sensory neurons carry signals from spinal cord to muscles.

(iii) Motor neurons carry signals from receptors to spinal cord.

(iv) The path through which signals are transmitted from a receptor to muscle or a gland is called reflex arc.

19 / 30

Which is the correct sequence of the components of a reflex arc?

20 / 30

In a neuron, conversion of electrical signal to a chemical signal occurs at/in

21 / 30

In a synapse, chemical signal is transmitted from

22 / 30

Which of the following statements is correct about receptors?

23 / 30

In humans, the life processes are controlled and regulated by

24 / 30

Junction between two neurons is called

25 / 30

Which of the following endocrine glands is unpaired?

26 / 30

The hormone which increase the fertility in males is called

27 / 30

Dramatic changes of body features associated with puberty are mainly because of secretion of

28 / 30

Dwarfism results due to

29 / 30

Which statement is not true about thyroxin?

30 / 30

When a person is suffering from severe cold, he or she cannot

MOCK EXAM 3

KARTET / CTET

amk

Light - Reflection & Refraction

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1 / 30

A student traces the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular slab for three different values of angle of incidence (∠i ) namely 30o, 45o and 60o. He extends the direction of incident ray by a dotted line and measures the perpendicular distance ‘l’ between the extended incident ray and the emergent ray.He will observe that

2 / 30

Four students A, B, C and D performed the experiment to determine the focal length of a concave mirror by obtaining the image of a distant tree on a screen. They measured the distances between the screen and the mirror as shown in the diagrams given, The correct way to measure accurate focal length of the mirror is

3 / 30

A student traces the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular slab, For measuring the angle of incidence, he must position the protractor in the manner shown in the figure

4 / 30

While performing an experiment on determination of focal length of a convex lens, four students obtained the image of the same distant tree on the screen as given figure, Which diagram shows the formation of image correctly?

5 / 30

 A student does the experiment on tracing the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab for different angles of incidence. He can get a correct measure of the angle of incidence and the angle of emergence by following the labelling indicated in figure

6 / 30

If an object is placed 21 cm from a converging lens, the image formed is slightly smaller than the object. If the object is placed at a distance of 19 cm from the lens, the image formed is slightly larger than the object. The approximate focal length of the lens is

7 / 30

 Which of the following can make a parallel beam of light when light from a point source is incident on it?

8 / 30

A lens of focal length 12 cm forms an erect image, three times the size of the object. The distance between the object and image is

9 / 30

A ray of light passes from a medium X to another medium Y. No refraction of light occurs if the ray of light hits the boundary of medium Y at an angle of

10 / 30

A ray of light is travelling in a direction perpendicular to the boundary of a parallel glass slab. The ray of light:

11 / 30

Beams of light are incident through the holes A and B and emerge out of box through the holes C and D respectively as shown in the figure. Which of the following could be inside the box?

12 / 30

 A light ray enters from medium A to medium B as shown in the figure. The refractive index of medium B relative to A will be

13 / 30

Under which of the following conditions, a concave mirror can form an image larger than the actual object?

14 / 30

A 10 mm long awl pin is placed vertically in front of a concave mirror. A 5 mm long image of the awl pin is formed at 30 cm in front of the mirror. The focal length of this mirror is

15 / 30

The nature of the image formed by concave mirror when the object is placed between the focus (F) and centre of curvature (C) of the mirror observed by us is

16 / 30

An object at a distance of + 15 cm is slowly moved towards the pole of a convex mirror. The image will get

17 / 30

Which of the following mirror is used by a dentist to examine a small cavity?

18 / 30

An object is placed at a distance of 0.25 m in front of a plane mirror. The distance between the object and image will be

19 / 30

In which of the following, the image of an object placed at infinity will be highly diminished and point sized?

20 / 30

A child is standing in front of a magic mirror. She finds the image of her head bigger, the middle portion of her body of the same size and that of the legs smaller. The following is the order of combinations for the magic mirror from the top

21 / 30

Which of the following ray diagrams is correct for the ray of light incident on a lens shown in figure?

22 / 30

Which of the following ray diagrams is correct for the ray of light incident on a concave mirror as shown in figure?

23 / 30

You are given water, mustard oil, glycerine and kerosene. In which of these media, a ray of light incident obliquely at some angle would bend the most

24 / 30

 The path of a ray of light coming from air passing through a rectangular glass slab traced by four students shown as A, B, C and D in the figure. Which one of them is correct?

25 / 30

 The laws of reflection hold good for

26 / 30

In torches, search lights and headlights of vehicles, the bulb is placed

27 / 30

A full length image of a distant tall building can definitely be seen by using

28 / 30

A point object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 20 cm. The image will form at

29 / 30

You are given three media A, B and C of refractive index 1.33, 1.65 and 1.46. The medium in which the light will travel fastest is

30 / 30

If a man’s face is 25 cm in front of concave shaving mirror producing erect image 1.5 times the size of face, focal length of the mirror would be

MOCK EXAM 4

KARTET / CTET

amk

Metals & Non Metals

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1 / 30

Which of the following property is generally not shown by metals?

2 / 30

An element X is soft and can be cut with the help of a knife. It is very reactive to air and cannot be kept open in the air. It reacts vigorously with water. Identify the element from the following

3 / 30

Which of the following alloys contains a non-metal as one of its constituents?

4 / 30

Galvanisation is a method of protecting steel and iron from rusting by coating them with a thin layer of

5 / 30

Which of the following pairs of reactants will go undergo a displacement reaction?

6 / 30

Which among the following is the most abundant metal found in the earth’s crust?

7 / 30

Which of the following pairs will give displacement reactions?

8 / 30

An element reacts with oxygen to give a compound with a high melting point. This compound is also soluble in water. The element is likely to be

9 / 30

Which of the following represent the correct order of decreasing reactivity?

10 / 30

In the given reaction, Al2O+ NaOH   →  ……X……   +  H2O, What is element X?

11 / 30

In electrolytic refining, the cathode is made up of

12 / 30

Generally metals react with acids to give salt and hydrogen gas. Which of the following acids does not give hydrogen gas on reacting with metals (except Mn and Mg)?

13 / 30

What happens when calcium is treated with water?

(i)  It does not react with water.

(ii) It reacts violently with water.

(iii) It reacts less violently with water.

(iv) Bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of calcium.

14 / 30

Which of the following oxide(s) of iron would be obtained on prolonged reaction of iron with steam?

15 / 30

Which one of the following metals do not react with cold as well as hot water?

16 / 30

Aluminium is used for making cooking utensils. Which of the following properties of aluminium are responsible for the same?

(i) Good thermal conductivity

(ii) Good electrical conductivity

(iii) Ductility

(iv) High melting point

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The ability of metals to be drawn into thin wire is known as

18 / 30

Electrical wires have a coating of an insulating material. The material, generally used is

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Generally non-metals are non-conductors of electricity. Which of the following is a good conductor of electricity?

20 / 30

Although metals form basic oxides, which of the following metals form an amphoteric oxide?

21 / 30

The electronic configurations of three elements X, Y and Z are X — 2, 8: Y — 2, 8, 7 and Z — 2, 8, 2. Which of the following is correct?

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Reaction between X and Y forms compound Z. X loses electron and y gains electron. Which of the following properties is not shown by Z?

23 / 30

Which among the following alloys contain mercury as one of its constituents?

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Which among the following statements is incorrect for magnesium metal?

25 / 30

Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of a metal with a metal or non-metal. Which among the following alloys contain non-metal as one of its constituents?

26 / 30

 An element A is soft and can be cut with a knife. This is very reactive to air and cannot be kept open in air. It reacts vigorously with water. Identify the element from the following.

27 / 30

During electrolytic refining of zinc, it gets

28 / 30

An electrolytic cell consists of

(i) Positively charged cathode

(ii) Negatively charged anode

(iii) Positively charged anode

(iv) Negatively charged cathode

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2 mL each of conc. HCl, HNO3, and a mixture of conc. HCl. and conc. HNO3, in the ratio of 3 : 1 were taken in test tubes labeled as A, B and C. A small piece of metal was put in each test tube. No change occurred in test tubes A and B but the metal got dissolved in test tube C. The metal could be

30 / 30

Which one of the following four metals would be displaced from the solution of its salts by other three metals?

MOCK EXAM 5

KARTET / CTET

amk

Carbon & its Compounds

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1 / 30

Which of the following is the molecular formula of cyclobutane?

2 / 30

The property of self-linkage among identical atoms to form long chain compounds is known as

3 / 30

Which of the following compounds of carbon does not consist of ions?

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The I.U.P.A.C name of CH3CH2CH=CH2 is?

5 / 30

Cation is formed when

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Oils on treating with hydrogen in the presence of palladium or nickel catalyst form fats. This is an example of

7 / 30

In the following reaction, alkaline KMnO4 acts as:

alkaline KMnO4 as oxidising agent

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Buckminsterfullerene is an allotropic form of

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A molecule of ammonia (NH3) has

10 / 30

Mineral acids are stronger acids than carboxylic acids because

(i) Mineral acids are completely ionised.

(ii) Carboxylic acids are completely ionised.

(iii) Mineral acids are partially ionised.

(iv) Carboxylic acids are partially ionised

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Vinegar is a solution of

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Ethanol reacts with sodium and forms two products. These are

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Pentane has the molecular formula C5H12. It has

14 / 30

In the soap micelles

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Chlorine reacts with saturated hydrocarbons at room temperature in the

16 / 30

Identify the unsaturated compounds from the following.

(i) Propane

(ii) Propene

(iii) Propyne

(iv) Chloropropane

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The soap molecule has a

18 / 30

 In which of the following compounds -OH is the functional group?

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 Which of the following statements about graphite and diamond is true?

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 Solubility of alcohol in water is due to

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A functional group mainly determines the

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 —CHO represents the functional group

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 In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms to form

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The first member of the alkyne homologous series is

25 / 30

 Addition reactions are undergone by

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Why does carbon form compounds mainly by covalent bonding?

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Name the functional group present in CH3COCH3

28 / 30

Ethanol on complete oxidation gives

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The number of isomers of pentane is

30 / 30

C3H8 belongs to the homologous series of

MOCK EXAM 6

KARTET / CTET

amk

Management of Natural Resources

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1 / 30

Which among the statements given below is incorrect?

2 / 30

Given below are a few statements related to biodiversity. Pick those that correctly describe the concept of biodiversity

i. Biodiversity refers to the different species of flora and fauna present in an area

ii. Biodiversity refers to only the flora of a given area

iii. Biodiversity is greater in a forest

iv. Biodiversity refers to the total number of individuals of a particular species living in an area

Choose the correct option from the following

3 / 30

In our country, there are attempts to increase the height of several existing dams like Tehri and Almati dams across the Narmada. Choose the correct statements among the following that are a consequence of raising the height of dams

i. Terrestrial flora and fauna of the area is destroyed completely

ii. Dislocation of people and domestic animals living in the area

iii. Valuable agricultural land may be permanently lost

iv. It will generate permanent employment for people

Choose the correct option from the following

4 / 30

Which among the following is a major programme that was started to replenish the damaged forests?

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Sardar Sarovar Dam is situated on river

6 / 30

Who started chipko Movement?

7 / 30

Among the following choose the correct option which includes acts related to the three R's strategy which can be useful for conserving our natural resources?

8 / 30

 Which among the following factors help in confirming the contamination of river water?

i. Measurement of pH of river water

ii. Presence of chlorine in river water

iii. Existence of diverse life forms in river water

iv. Presence of coliform bacteria in river water

Choose the correct option from the following

9 / 30

Government launched the ‘Ganga Action Plan’ (GAP) project in 1985. The main purpose of this project was to

10 / 30

 Which of the following does not lead to the depletion of groundwater?

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Which among the following is an eco-friendly activity?

12 / 30

The quality of environment can be improved by-

13 / 30

Which among the following was a message conveyed by the ‘Chipko Movement’?

14 / 30

Which of the following activities will prove to be effective in preventing floods?

i. Removing the topsoil

ii. Afforestation

iii. Construction of dams

iv. Cutting of trees

Choose the correct option from the following:

15 / 30

Which of the following is/ are not the consequence/consequences of building high-rise dams?

i. Loss of biodiversity

ii. Depletion of the natural habitats of wild animals

Soil erosion leading to the infertility of land

iv. Fall in the groundwater level

Choose the correct option from the following:

16 / 30

A successful forest conservation strategy should involve

17 / 30

 In our country, vast tracts of forests are cleared and a single species of plant is cultivated. This practice promotes

18 / 30

 The pH range most conducive for life of freshwater plants and animals is

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The pH of water sample collected from a river was found to be acidic in the range of 3.5-4.5, on the banks of the river were several factories that were discharging effluents into the river. The effluents of which one of the following factories is the most likely cause for lowering the pH of river water?

20 / 30

The main cause for abundant coliform bacteria in the river Ganga is

21 / 30

The most appropriate definition of a natural resource is that it is a substance/commodity that is

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The most rapidly dwindling natural resource in the world is

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From the list given below pick the item that is not a natural resource

24 / 30

Which gas is formed, when fossil fuels are burnt in insufficient air (oxygen)?

25 / 30

Environment Day celebrated on

26 / 30

Surangams are the age-old concept of water harvesting in

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Which of the following is the age old concept of water harvesting system in Madhya Pradesh ?

28 / 30

Which of the following canals brought about greenery in Rajasthan ?

29 / 30

Which of the following community in Rajasthan has a religious tenet of conservation of forest and wildlife ?

30 / 30

Which one of the following is an example of renewable resource ?

MOCK EXAM 7

KARTET / CTET

amk

Our Environment

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1 / 30

Global warming is a phenomenon related to

2 / 30

Which of the following substances will not be converted to compost when added in a composting pit?

3 / 30

What will happen if deer is missing in the food chain given below?

Grass → Deer → Tiger

4 / 30

The substance which is chiefly responsible for the depletion of ozone layer is

5 / 30

Which of the following radiations is responsible for the conversion of atmospheric oxygen to ozone?

6 / 30

If 100 J energy is available at the producer level in a food chain then the energy available to the secondary consumer will be

7 / 30

Every food chain in the ecosystem begins with………. which are the original source of food

8 / 30

Which group of organisms are not constituents of a food chain?

(i) Grass, lion, rabbit, wolf

(ii) Plankton, man, fish, grasshopper

(iii) Wolf, grass, snake, tiger

(iv) Frog, snake, eagle, grass, grasshopper

9 / 30

Which of the statement is incorrect?

10 / 30

Which of the following limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain?

11 / 30

In the following groups of materials, which group(s) contains only non-biodegradable items?

(i) Wood, paper, leather

(ii) Polythene, detergent, PVC

(iii) Plastic, detergent, grass

(iv) Plastic, Bakelite, DDT

12 / 30

Excessive exposure of humans to UV-rays results in

(i) damage to immune system

(ii) damage to lungs

(iii) skin cancer

(iv) peptic ulcers

13 / 30

Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always

14 / 30

Organisms of a higher trophic level which feed on several types of organisms belonging to a lower trophic level constitute the

15 / 30

In an ecosystem, the 10% of energy available for transfer from one trophic level to the next is in the form of

16 / 30

Depletion of ozone is mainly due to

17 / 30

In the given food chain, suppose the amount of energy at fourth trophic level is 5 kJ, what will be the energy available at the producer level?

Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk

18 / 30

An ecosystem includes

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 In a food chain, the third trophic level is always occupied by

20 / 30

Which one of the following is an artificial ecosystem?

21 / 30

Acid rain is caused by the oxides of

22 / 30

Which of the two in the following sets belong to the same trophic level?

23 / 30

The depletion of the ozone layer causes

24 / 30

First link in any food chain is usually green plants because

25 / 30

Trophic level in an ecosystem represents

26 / 30

Which of the following is biodegradable?

27 / 30

Disposable plastic plates should not be used because

28 / 30

 If a grasshopper is eaten by a frog, then the energy transfer will be from

29 / 30

The decomposers in an ecosystem

30 / 30

The percentage of solar radiation absorbed by all the green plants for the process of photosynthesis is about

MOCK EXAM 8

KARTET / CTET

amk

Sources of Energy

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1 / 30

A good fuel is one that possesses

2 / 30

Select the important factor for the site selection of a thermal power plant.

3 / 30

Which of the following problem is associated with a burning of coal?

4 / 30

Dead organisms are transformed into petroleum and natural gas in

5 / 30

Fossile fuels are

6 / 30

Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but still everybody discuss about the energy crisis because

7 / 30

The process by which energy is produced in the sun is

8 / 30

 The major constituent of biogas is

9 / 30

The disposal of wastes produced in a nuclear power plant is a big problem because it is

10 / 30

What is the energy equivalent of one atomic mass unit?

11 / 30

The rise of sea-water during high tide is caused by the gravitational pull of the

12 / 30

Which of the followings is not a fossil fuel?

13 / 30

 In order to make efficient solar cooker, the cover of cooker box should be made of

14 / 30

 In a hydroelectric power plant more electrical power can be generated if water falls from a greater height because

15 / 30

Coke is more valuable when used

16 / 30

There are four fuels which all contain only carbon and hydrogen. The fuel having highest calorific value will be one which has

17 / 30

Choose the correct statement 

18 / 30

The power generated in a windmill

19 / 30

 Which part of the solar cooker is responsible for green house effect? 

20 / 30

The major problem in harnessing nuclear energy is how to

21 / 30

Ocean thermal energy is due to 

22 / 30

Which one of the following forms of energy leads to least environmental pollution in the process of its harnessing and utilisation?

23 / 30

Which is the ultimate source of energy?

24 / 30

In a hydropower plant

25 / 30

Tidal energy is a farm of energy obtained from the

26 / 30

Solar cells are made of

27 / 30

The use of reflector in the solar cooker is to

28 / 30

The temperature inside the solar cooker ranges from

29 / 30

Which of the following organism produces biogas from cow drug sherry in the biogas plant?

30 / 30

Biogas is a better fuel than animal dung cake because

MOCK EXAM 9

KARTET / CTET

amk

Electricity 

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1 / 30

If in the given arrangement, the three resistors are to be replaced by a single resistor. What will be the value of this resistor?

2 / 30

Keeping the potential difference constant, the resistance of the circuit is halved. The current will become

3 / 30

When a 4 Ω resistor is connected across the terminals of a 2 V battery, the number of coulombs passing through the resistor per second is

4 / 30

An electrical appliance has a resistance of 25 Ω. When this electrical appliance is connected to a 230 V supply line, the current passing through it will be

5 / 30

 What is the amount of current flowing through an electric press, if the amount of charge passing through a conductor in 10 minutes is 300 C?

6 / 30

In the given figure, the resistors

7 / 30

If the current flowing through a fixed resistor is halved, the heat produced in it will become

8 / 30

The resistivity does not change if

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In an electrical circuit two resistors of 2 Ω and 4 Ω respectively are connected in series to a 6 V battery. The heat dissipated by the 4 Ω resistor in 5 s will be

10 / 30

Electric potential is a

11 / 30

 Coulomb is the SI unit of

12 / 30

 When electric current is passed, electrons move from

13 / 30

The heating element of an electric iron is made up of

14 / 30

The electrical resistance of insulators is

15 / 30

Electrical resistivity of any given metallic wire depends upon

16 / 30

Electric power is inversely proportional to

17 / 30

What is the commercial unit of electrical energy?

18 / 30

Three resistors of 1 Ω, 2 ft and 3 Ω are connected in parallel. The combined resistance of the three resistors should be

19 / 30

An electric bulb is connected to a 220V generator. The current is 0.50 A. What is the power of the bulb?

20 / 30

Which of the following gases are filled in electric bulbs?

21 / 30

100 J of heat is produced each second in a 4Ω resistor. The potential difference across the resistor will be

22 / 30

A boy records that 4000 joule of work is required to transfer 10 coulomb of charge between two points of a resistor of 50 Ω. The current passing through it is

23 / 30

Two devices are connected between two points say A and B in parallel. The physical quantity that will remain the same between the two points is

24 / 30

Two resistors are connected in series gives an equivalent resistance of 10 Ω. When connected in parallel, gives 2.4 Ω. Then the individual resistance are

25 / 30

If R1 and R2 be the resistance of the filament of 40 W and 60 W respectively operating 220 V, then

26 / 30

The resistance of hot filament of the bulb is about 10 times the cold resistance. What will be the resistance of 100 W-220 V lamp, when not in use?

27 / 30

A fuse wire repeatedly gets burnt when used with a good heater. It is advised to use a fuse wire of

28 / 30

A cooler of 1500 W, 200 volt and a fan of 500 W, 200 volt are to be used from a household supply. The rating of fuse to be used is

29 / 30

What is the maximum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 1/5 W?

30 / 30

A cylindrical conductor of length l and uniform area of cross-section A has resistance R. Another conductor of length 2l and resistance R of the same material has area of cross-section

MOCK EXAM 10

KARTET / CTET

amk

Practice Paper

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1 / 30

The instrument used to measure pressue

2 / 30

Perspiration cools the body because

3 / 30

Sound waves do not exhibit the phenomenon of

4 / 30

Light year is a measurement of

5 / 30

The mass number of an atom is determined by

6 / 30

The value of g on the Earth's surface changes due to

7 / 30

Why is red light employed for danger signals?

8 / 30

The Doppler's effect is applicable for

9 / 30

White clothes are cooler than black ones because they

10 / 30

Which one among the following is responsible for formation of 'Ozone Holes' in the stratosphere?

11 / 30

The intensity ratio of waves is 25:9. What is the ratio of their amplitudes?

12 / 30

The sounds having frequency of 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz are

13 / 30

A fuse is used in an electric circuit to

14 / 30

X- rays were discovered by

15 / 30

The main source of enrgy in Sun is

16 / 30

Quality of musical note depends on

17 / 30

A water tank appears shallower when it is viewed from top due to

18 / 30

How can boiling point of a liquid be reduced?

19 / 30

Heat is transmitted from higher to lower temperature through actual mass motion of the molecules in

20 / 30

The image formed on the retina of a human eye is

21 / 30

If density of oxygen is 16 times that of hydrogen, what will be their corresponding ratio of velocity of sound?

22 / 30

Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction is related to the

23 / 30

Metals are good conductor of heat than insulator because

24 / 30

The shape of a rain drop is spherical due to

25 / 30

Red data book gives information about species which are

26 / 30

When the velocity of a body is doubled

27 / 30

Which of the following is a primary consumer?

28 / 30

In which of the following sequences are the electromagnetic radiations in decreasing order of wave lengths

29 / 30

The Dynamo converts

30 / 30

A diode as a rectifier converts