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KARTET 2022

 September 24, 2020
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TET Certificate Valid for Lifetime

The National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) has  approved the extension of Teachers Eligibility Test (TET) Validity Certificate instead of 7 years to Lifetime,

It a big relief to all the candidates who write Exam every year to gain Eligibility in Teachers Eligibility Test that’s  conducted in State and Central level, the  decision was taken in the 50th meeting of the General Body of NCTE held on 29th September 2020,

According to the minutes of the NCTE General Body Meeting being circulated on 13th October, the council has approved extending the validity of TET certificate from seven years to life time and its provision will have prospective effect, for more details CLICK HERE

MATHEMATICS (30 Marks)

Mathematics is the Subject in Paper 1/2 for the Students who are aspirants for Mathematics Teachers, It carries weightage of 30 marks and its very important that you prepare for this subject and Score Good Marks.

MOCK EXAMS

Each Mock Exam consists of 30 Questions on Mathematics Content and Pedagogy, attempt all to analyse your preparations

MOCK EXAM 1

KARTET / CTET

amk

Introduction to Trigonometry

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1 / 30

 If cos (A + B) = 0, then sin (A – B) is reduced to

2 / 30

If a pole 6m high casts a shadow 2√3 m long on the ground, then the sun’s elevation is

3 / 30

 If cos9α = sin α and 9α < 90°, then the value of tan 5α is

4 / 30

If sin A = 1/2 and cos B = 1/2, then A + B = ?

5 / 30

If sin A + sin2 A = 1, then cos2 A + cos4 A = ?

6 / 30

 The value of (tan1° tan2° tan3° ... tan89°) is

7 / 30

Given that: SinA = a/b, then cosA = ?

8 / 30

The value of the expression [cosec (75° + θ) – sec (15° - θ) – tan (55° + θ) + cot (35° - θ)] is

9 / 30

The value of sin θ and cos (90° – θ)

10 / 30

(sin30° + cos30°) – (sin 60° + cos60°) = 

11 / 30

If x = a cos 0 and y = b sin 0, then b2x2 + a2y2 =

12 / 30

 If sec A + tan A = x, then sec A =

13 / 30

5 tan² A – 5 sec² A + 1 is equal to

14 / 30

If y sin 45° cos 45° = tan2 45° – cos2 30°, then y =

15 / 30

 If A and (2A – 45°) are acute angles such that sin A = cos (2A – 45°), then tan A is equal to

16 / 30

 If A, B and C are interior angles of a ΔABC then \cos \left(\frac{\mathrm{B}+\mathrm{C}}{2}\right) is equal to

17 / 30

 sin 2B = 2 sin B is true when B is equal to

18 / 30

If x and y are complementary angles, then

19 / 30

The value of sin² 30° – cos² 30° is

20 / 30

Ratios of sides of a right triangle with respect to its acute angles are known as

21 / 30

What is the minimum value of sin A, 0 ≤ A ≤ 90°

22 / 30

What is the maximum value of \frac{1}{\csc A}?

23 / 30

If sin x + cosec x = 2, then sin19x + cosec20x =

24 / 30

 sin (90° – A) = 

25 / 30

The value of sin² 5° + sin² 10° + sin² 15° + … + sin² 90° is equal to

26 / 30

 If cos (α + β) = 0, then sin (α – β) can be reduced to

27 / 30

If sin 0 = √3 cos θ, 0° < θ < 90°, then θ is equal to

28 / 30

If 0° < θ < 90°, then sec 0 is

29 / 30

 If 3 cot θ = 2, then the value of tan θ

30 / 30

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MOCK EXAM 2

KARTET / CTET

amk

Applications of Trigonometry 

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1 / 30

If the length of the shadow of a tower is increasing, then the angle of elevation of the sun

2 / 30

The shadow of a tower is equal to its height at 10-45 a.m. The sun’s altitude is

3 / 30

The tops of two poles of height 10m and 18m are connected with wire. If wire makes an angle of 30° with horizontal, then length of wire is

4 / 30

The ratio of the length of a rod and its shadow is 1 :√3. The altitude of the sun is

5 / 30

If the angle of depression of an object from a 75 m high tower is 30°, then the distance of the object from the base of tower is

6 / 30

When a point is observed, the angle formed by the line of sight with the horizontal level where the point being viewed is above the horizontal plane is known as

7 / 30

A window of a house is h metres above the ground. From the window, the angles of elevation and depression of the top and the bottom of another house situated on the opposite side of the lane are found to be A and B respectively. Then the height of the other house is

8 / 30

The angle of elevation of the top of a tower 30 m high from the foot of another tower in the same plane is 60°, then the distance between the two towers is

9 / 30

The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from certain point is 30°. If the observer moves 20 metres towards the tower, the angle of elevation of the top increases by 15°. Find the height of the tower

10 / 30

If a man standing on a platform 3 metres above the surface of a lake observes a cloud and its reflection in the lake, then the angle of elevation of the cloud is

11 / 30

 The shadow of a tower standing on a level plane is found to be 50 m longer when Sun’s elevation is 30° than when it is 60°. Then the height of tower is

12 / 30

The angles of elevation of the top of a tower from two points distant s and t from its foot are complementary. Then the height of the tower is

13 / 30

An observer 1.5 metres tall is 20.5 metres away from a tower 22 metres high.Determine the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the eye of the observer

14 / 30

A ladder 15 metres long just reaches the top of a vertical wall. If the ladder makes an angle of 60° with the wall, then the height of the wall will be

15 / 30

If the height of a tower and the distance of the point of observation from its foot,both, are increased by 10%, then the angle of elevation of its top

16 / 30

The angle of elevation of the top of a tower is 30°. If the height of the tower is doubled, then the angle of elevation of its top will

17 / 30

A portion of a 60 m long tree is broken by tornado and the top struck up the ground making an angle of 30° with the ground level. The height of the point where the tree is broken is equal to

18 / 30

Two poles are 25 m and 15 m high and the line joining their tops makes an angle of 45° with the horizontal. The distance between these poles is

19 / 30

The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point 20 metres away from its base is 45°. The height of the tower is

20 / 30

If two towers of heights h1 and h2 subtend angles of 60° and 30° respectively at the mid-point of the line joining their feet, then h1 : h2 =

21 / 30

The line drawn from the eye of an observer to the point in the object viewed by the observer is known as

22 / 30

The angles of elevation of the top of a rock from the top and foot of 100 m high tower are respectively 30° and 45°. The height of the rock is

23 / 30

A plane is observed to be approaching the airport. It is at a distance of 12 km from the point of observation and makes an angle of elevation of 60°. The height above the ground of the plane is

24 / 30

The angle of elevation of top of a tower from a point on the ground, which is 30 m away from the foot of the tower is 30°. The length of the tower is

25 / 30

When the length of shadow of a vertical pole is equal to √3 times of its height, the angle of elevation of the Sun’s altitude is

26 / 30

 In given figure, ABCD is a || gm. The lenght of AP is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Application of Trigonometry with Answers 8

27 / 30

In figure given ABCD is a rectangle, the value of CE is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Application of Trigonometry with Answers 7

28 / 30

In given Fig., the angle of depression from the observing position D and E of the object at A are
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Application of Trigonometry with Answers 3

29 / 30

In given figure, the value of ZC is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Application of Trigonometry with Answers 2

30 / 30

 In given figure, the value of CE is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Application of Trigonometry with Answers 1

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MOCK EXAM 3

KARTET / CTET

amk

Statistics 

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1 / 30

While computing mean of the grouped data, we assume that the frequencies are

2 / 30

 For the following distribution,

Class0-55-1010-1515-2020-25
Frequency101512209

The sum of lower limits of median class and modal class is

3 / 30

The abscissa of the point of intersection of the less than type and of the more than type cumulative frequency of a grouped data gives its

4 / 30

In a hospital, weights of new born babies were recorded, for one month. Data is as shown:

Weight of new born baby (in kg)1.4 – 1.81.8 – 2.22.2 – 2.62.6 – 3.0
No of babies31561

Then the median weight is

5 / 30

The Median when it is given that mode and mean are 8 and 9 respectively is

6 / 30

If 35 is removed from the data, 30, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40 then the median increases by

7 / 30

If the arithmetic mean of x, x + 3, x + 6, x + 9 and x + 12 is 10, then x = ?

8 / 30

One of the methods for determining mode is

9 / 30

Pocket expenses of a class in a college are shown in the following frequency distribution:

Pocket expenses0-200200-400400-600600-800800-10001000-12001200-1400
Number of students337417088764425

Then the median for the above data is

10 / 30

For one term, absentee record of students is given below. If mean is 15.5, then the missing frequencies x and y are:

Number of days0-55-1010-1515-2020-2525-3030-3535-40TOTAL
Total Number of students1516x8y86470

11 / 30

Cumulative frequency curve is also called

12 / 30

The median of set of 9 distinct observations is 20.5. If each of the largest 4 observations of the set is increased by 2, then the median of the new set

13 / 30

If mean = (3 median – mode) . k, then the value of k is

14 / 30

Mode and mean of a data are 12k and 15A. Median of the data is

15 / 30

Mean of 100 items is 49. It was discovered that three items which should have been 60, 70, 80 were wrongly read as 40, 20, 50 respectively. The correct mean is

16 / 30

For the following distribution

Marks0-1010-2020-3030-4040-50
No. of students3913105

the number of students who got marks less than 30 is

17 / 30

For the following distribution

Cl0-55-1010-1515-2020-25
f101512209

the difference of the upper limit of the median class and the lower limit of the modal class is

18 / 30

For the following distribution

C.I.0-56-1112-1718-2324-29
f2620301622

the upper limit of the median class is

19 / 30

For the following distribution

C.I.0-1010-2020-3030-4040-50
f2030244018

the sum of lower limits of the modal class and the median class is

20 / 30

Which of the following can not be determined graphically?

21 / 30

The algebraic sum of the deviations of a frequency distribution from its mean is always

22 / 30

Mode is the

23 / 30

For ‘more than ogive’ the x-axis represents

24 / 30

Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency?

25 / 30

There are lottery tickets labelled numbers from 1 to 500. I want to find the number which is most common in the lottery tickets. What quantity do I need to use? 

26 / 30

The mode of the following data.

cbse board class 10 maths chapter 14 12

27 / 30

(For an arranged data) The median is the 

28 / 30

The average weight of a group of 25 men was calculated to be 78.4 kg. It was discovered later that one weight was wrongly entered as 69 kg instead of 96 kg. What is the correct average ?

29 / 30

 If the sum of all the frequencies is 24, then the value of z is:

cbse board class 10 maths chapter 14 2

30 / 30

Class mark of a class is obtained by using

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MOCK EXAM 4

KARTET / CTET

amk

Arithmetic Progression 

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1 / 30

If the 2nd term of an AP is 13 and the 5th term is 25, what is its 7th term?

2 / 30

The 21st term of the AP whose first two terms are –3 and 4 is

3 / 30

The 11th term of AP -5, -5/2, 0, 5/2, ------ is 

4 / 30

The famous mathematician associated with finding the sum of the first 100 natural numbers is

5 / 30

The first four terms of an AP, whose first term is –2 and the common difference is –2, are

6 / 30

In an AP, if a = 3.5, d = 0, n = 101, then an will be

7 / 30

In an AP, if d = –4, n = 7, an = 4, then a is

8 / 30

The (n – 1)th term of an A.P. is given by 7,12,17, 22,… is

9 / 30

 If the sum of three numbers in an A.P. is 9 and their product is 24, then numbers are

10 / 30

Which term of an AP : 21, 42, 63, 84, ... is 210?

11 / 30

The list of numbers − 10, − 6, − 2, 2, ... is

12 / 30

In an AP if a = 1, an = 20 and Sn = 399, then n is

13 / 30

Two APs have the same common difference. The first term of one of these is –1 and that of the other is – 8. Then the difference between their 4th terms is

14 / 30

The sum of first five multiples of 3 is

15 / 30

The sum of first 16 terms of the AP: 10, 6, 2,... is

16 / 30

If the sum of first n terms of an AP is An + Bn² where A and B are constants, the common difference of AP will be

17 / 30

If the nth term of an AP is (2n +1), then the sum of its first three terms is

18 / 30

The next term of the AP √18, √50, √98, …….. is

19 / 30

If a, b, c, d, e are in A.P., then the value of a – 4b + 6c – 4d + e is

20 / 30

 The number of multiples lie between n and n² which are divisible by n is

21 / 30

The sum of first n odd natural numbers is

22 / 30

The sum of 12 terms of an A.P. whose nth term is given by an = 3n + 4

23 / 30

The nth term of an A.P. 5, 2, -1, -4, -7 … is

24 / 30

The first term of an AP is 5, the last term is 50 and the sum is 440. Find the number of terms and the common difference

25 / 30

The sum of first ten terms of an A.P. is four times the sum of its first five terms, then ratio of the first term and common difference is

26 / 30

If (x+1),3x and (4x+2) are first three terms of an AP, then its 5th term is

27 / 30

For what value of n, are the nth terms of two AP’s: 63, 65, 67 …. and 3, 10, 17,.. equal?

28 / 30

Two AP’s have the same common difference. The difference between their 100th terms 100, what is the difference between their 1000th terms

29 / 30

Which term of the AP: 3, 15, 27, 39, … will be 132 more than its 54th term?

30 / 30

If the third and the ninth terms of an AP are 4 and -8 respectively, which term of this AP is zero?

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MOCK EXAM 5

KARTET / CTET

amk

Circles

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1 / 30

In the given figure, if ZRPS = 25°, the value of ZROS is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Circles with Answers 1

2 / 30

In the following figure, tangents PQ and PR are drawn to a circle such that ∠RPQ = 30°. A chord RS is drawn parallel to the tangent PQ, then ∠RQS.

CBSE 10th Maths Exam 2020: Important MCQs from Chapter 10 Circles with Detailed Solutions

3 / 30

In the following figure, AB is a chord of the circle and AOC is its diameter such that ACB = 50°. If AT is the tangent to the circle at the point A, then BAT is equal to

CBSE 10th Maths Exam 2020: Important MCQs from Chapter 10 Circles with Detailed Solutions

4 / 30

In the adjoining figure, Δ ABC is circumscribing a circle. Then, the length of BC is

CBSE 10th Maths Exam 2020: Important MCQs from Chapter 10 Circles with Detailed Solutions

5 / 30

In the following figure, if PQR is the tangent to a circle at Q whose centre is O, AB is a chord parallel to PR and ∠BQR = 70°, then ∠AQB is equal to

CBSE 10th Maths Exam 2020: Important MCQs from Chapter 10 Circles with Detailed Solutions

6 / 30

 If two tangents inclined at an angle 60° are drawn to a circle of radius 3 cm, then length of each tangent is equal to

7 / 30

If a chord AB subtends an angle of 60° at the centre of a circle, then angle between the tangents at A and B is

8 / 30

If d1, d2 (d2 > d1) be the diameters of two concentric circles and c be the length of a chord of a circle which is tangent to the other circle, then

9 / 30

In the following figure, PA and PB are tangents from a point P to a circle with centre O. Then the quadrilateral OAPB must be a

CBSE 10th Maths Exam 2020: Important MCQs from Chapter 10 Circles with Detailed Solutions

10 / 30

In the following figure, if O is the centre of a circle, PQ is a chord and the tangent PR at P makes an angle of 50° with PQ, then ∠POQ is equal to

CBSE 10th Maths Exam 2020: Important MCQs from Chapter 10 Circles with Detailed Solutions

11 / 30

At one end A of a diameter AB of a circle of radius 5 cm, tangent XAY is drawn to the circle. The length of the chord CD parallel to XY and at a distance 8 cm from A is

12 / 30

In the following figure, AT is a tangent to the circle with centre O such that OT = 4 cm and ∠OTA = 30°. Then AT is equal to

CBSE 10th Maths Exam 2020: Important MCQs from Chapter 10 Circles with Detailed Solutions

13 / 30

The length of tangent from an external point on a circle is

14 / 30

If angle between two tangents drawn from a point P to a circle of radius ‘a’and centre ‘O’ is 90°, then OP =

15 / 30

The length of tangent from an external point P on a circle with centre O is

16 / 30

If angle between two radii of a circle is 130º, then the angle between the tangents at the ends of the radii is

17 / 30

In figure if PQR is the tangent to a circle at Q whose centre is O, AB is a chord parallel to PR and ∠BQR = 70°, then ∠AQB is equal to 
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Circles with Answers 16

18 / 30

In the given figure, TP and TQ are two tangents to a circle with centre O, such that ∠POQ = 110°. Then ∠PTQ is equal to
Multiple Choice Questions on Circles

19 / 30

In figure, O is the centre of a circle, AB is a chord and AT is the tangent at A. If ∠AOB = 100°, then ∠BAT is equal to
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Circles with Answers 12

20 / 30

C (O, r1) and C(O, r2) are two concentric circles with r1 > r2 AB is a chord of C(O, r1) touching C(O, r,2) at C then

21 / 30

In the given figure, point P is 26 cm away from the centre O of a circle and the length PT of the tangent drawn from P to the circle is 24 cm. Then the radius of the circle is 
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Circles with Answers 9

22 / 30

In the given figure, AB and AC are tangents to the circle with centre O such that ∠BAC = 40°, then ∠BOC is equal to 
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Circles with Answers 8

23 / 30

From a point P which is at a distance of 13 cm from the centre O of a circle of radius 5 cm, the pair of tangents PQ and PR to the circle are drawn. Then the area of the quadrilateral PQOR is

24 / 30

In given figure, CP and CQ are tangents to a circle with centre O. ARB is another tangent touching the circle at R. If CP = 11 cm and BC = 6 cm then the length of BR is
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Maths Circles with Answers 2

25 / 30

The length of a tangent drawn from a point at a distance of 10 cm of circle is 8 cm. The radius of the circle is

26 / 30

Tangents from an external point to a circle are

27 / 30

The tangents drawn at the extremities of the diameter of a circle are

28 / 30

Number of tangents drawn at a point of the , circle is/are

29 / 30

The length of tangents drawn from an external point to the circle

30 / 30

A tangent is drawn from a point at a distance of 17 cm of circle C(0, r) of radius 8 cm. The length of its tangent is

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MOCK EXAM 6

KARTET / CTET

amk

Areas Related to Circles

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1 / 30

A round table cover has six equal designs as shown in the figure. If the radius of thecover is 28 cm, then the cost of making the design at the rate of Rs. 0.35 per cm2 is

2 / 30

Area of a sector of central angle 120° of a circle is 3π cm2. Then the length of the corresponding arc of this sector is

3 / 30

The area of the shaded region in Fig., where arcs drawn with centres P, Q, Rand S intersect in pairs at mid-points A, B, C and D of the sides PQ, QR, RS and SP, respectively of a square PQRS, is

4 / 30

The wheel of a motor cycle is of radius 35 cm. How many revolutions per minute must the wheel make so as to keep a speed of 66 km/h?

5 / 30

The diameter of a circle whose area is equal to the sum of the areas of the two circles of radii 24 cm and 7 cm respectively, is

6 / 30

The radius of a circle whose circumference is equal to the sum of the circumferences of the two circles of diameters 36 cm and 20 cm is

7 / 30

The area of the square that can be inscribed in a circle of radius 8 cm is

8 / 30

It is proposed to build a single circular park equal in area to the sum of areas of two circular parks of diameters 16 m and 12 m in a locality. The radius of the new park would be

9 / 30

If the perimeter of a circle is equal to that of a square, then the ratio of their areas is

10 / 30

 Area of the largest triangle that can be inscribed in a semi-circle of radius r units, in square units is

11 / 30

If the circumference of a circle and the perimeter of a square are equal, then

12 / 30

If the sum of the areas of two circles with radii R1 and R2 is equal to the area of a circle of radius R, then

13 / 30

In the figure, PQRS is a square and O is centre of the circle. If RS = 10 √2, then area of shaded region is

14 / 30

A circular wire of radius 42 cm is cut and bent into the form of a rectangle whose sides are in the ratio of 6 : 5. The smaller side of the rectangle is

15 / 30

The ratio of the areas of the incircle and circumcircle of a square is

16 / 30

If the circumferences of two circles are in the ratio 4 : 9, then the ratio in their area is

17 / 30

If the difference between the and the radius of of a circle is 37 cm, then 22 using π = 22/7 the circumference (in cm) of the circle is

18 / 30

The diameter of a wheel is 1.26 m. The distance travelled in 500 revolutions is

19 / 30

If the circumference of a circle is 352 metres, then its area in square metres is

20 / 30

The perimeter (in cm) of a square circumscribing a circle of radius a cm, is

21 / 30

The radii of two circles are 4 cm and 3 cm respectively. The diameter of the circle having area equal to the sum of the areas of the two circles (in cm) is

22 / 30

The radii of two circles are 19 cm and 9 cm respectively. The radius of the circle which has circumference equal to the sum of the circumference of two circles is

23 / 30

The length of the minute hand of a clock is 14 cm. The area swept by the minute hand in 5 minutes is

24 / 30

 The area of a circle whose circumference is 22 cm, is

25 / 30

 The area of the sector of a circle with radius 6 cm and of angle 60° is

26 / 30

The area of the circle whose diameter is 21 cm is

27 / 30

The area of a quadrant of a circle whose circumference is 22 cm, is

28 / 30

The area of a quadrant of a circle whose circumference is 22 cm, is

29 / 30

 If angle of sector is 60°, radius is 3.5 cm then length of the arc is

30 / 30

The area of the circle is 154 cm2. The radius of the circle is

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MOCK EXAM 7

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Co - ordinate Geometry

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1 / 30

In what ratio of line x – y – 2 = 0 divides the line segment joining (3, –1) and (8, 9)?

2 / 30

The distance of the point (–6, 8) from the origin.

3 / 30

The coordinates of the point equidistant from the points A(1, 2), B (3, –4) and C(5, –6)

4 / 30

The ratio in which the point P (3/4, 5/12)divides the line segment joining the Points A (1/2, 3/2) and B (2, –5) is

5 / 30

A line intersects the y-axis and x-axis at the points P and Q, respectively. If (2, –5) is the mid - point of PQ, then the coordinates of P and Q are, respectively

6 / 30

One of the two points of trisection of the line segment joining the points A (7, – 2) and B (1, – 5) which divides the line in the ratio 1:2 are

7 / 30

The point which divides the line segment joining the points (7, –6) and (3, 4) in ratio 1 : 2 internally lies in the

8 / 30

The area of a triangle with vertices A (3, 0), B (7, 0) and C (8, 4) is

9 / 30

If the distance between the points (4, p) and (1, 0) is 5, then the value of p is

10 / 30

A circle drawn with origin as the centre passes through The point which does not lie in the interior of the circle is

11 / 30

The coordinates of the point which is equidistant from the three vertices of the Δ AOB as shown in the figure is

12 / 30

If P (a/3, 4) is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points Q (– 6, 5) and R (– 2, 3), then the value of a is

13 / 30

AOBC is a rectangle whose three vertices are vertices A (0, 3), O (0, 0) and B (5, 0). The length of its diagonal is

14 / 30

The distance between the points A (0, 6) and B (0, –2) is

15 / 30

The distance of the point P (2, 3) from the x-axis is

16 / 30

The points A (9, 0), B (9, 6), C (–9, 6) and D (–9, 0) are the vertices of a

17 / 30

The mid-point of the line segment joining the points A (–2, 8) and B (– 6, – 4) is

18 / 30

If the distance between the points (2, –2) and (–1, x) is 5, one of the values of x is

19 / 30

In human males, the testes lie in the scrotum, because it helps in the

20 / 30

The area of the triangle with vertices at the points (a, b + c), (b, c + a) and (c, a + b) is

21 / 30

 If p(a/3, 4) is the mid-point of the line segment joining the points Q (-6, 5) and R (-2, 3), then the value of a is 

22 / 30

The perimeter of a triangle with vertices (0,4), (0, 0) and (3, 0) is

23 / 30

 If the segment joining the points (a, b) and (c, d) subtends a right angle at the origin, then

24 / 30

The points (- 4, 0), (4, 0) and (0, 3) are the vertices of a/an

25 / 30

 If the points P(1, 2), B(0, 0) and C(a, b) are collinear, then

26 / 30

 The points (1,1), (-2, 7) and (3, -3) are

27 / 30

The distance of the point (α, β) from the origin is

28 / 30

The area of the triangle ABC with the vertices A(-5, 7), B(-4, -5) and C(4, 5) is

29 / 30

The distance between the point P(1, 4) and Q(4, 0) is

30 / 30

The distance of the point P(2, 3) from the x-axis is

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MOCK EXAM 8

KARTET / CTET

amk

Quadratic Equations

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1 / 30

A takes 6 days less than B to finish a piece of work. If both A and B together can finish the work in 4 days, find the time taken by B to finish the work.

2 / 30

Satvik observed that in a clock, the time needed by the minute hand of a clock to show 3 PM was found to be 3 min less than t2/4 minutes at t minutes past 2 PM. Then t is equal to

3 / 30

A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63 km and then travels a distance of 72 km at an average speed of 6 km/h more than its original speed. If it takes 3 hours to complete the total journey, what is its original average speed?

4 / 30

Rohini had scored 10 more marks in her mathematics test out of 30 marks, 9 times these marks would have been the square of her actual marks. How many marks did she get in the test?

5 / 30

 If the one root of the equation 4x2 – 2x + p – 4 = 0 be the reciprocal of other. Then value of p is

6 / 30

If x2 (a2 + b2) + 2x (ac + bd) + c2 +d2 = 0 has no real roots, then

7 / 30

If p2x2 – q2 = 0, then x =?

8 / 30

The product of two successive integral multiples of 5 is 300. Then the numbers are

9 / 30

A natural number, when increased by 12, equals 160 times its reciprocal. Find the number

10 / 30

If 1/2 is a root of the equation x2 + kx – (5/4) = 0 then the value of k is

11 / 30

 Which constant should be added and subtracted to solve the quadratic equation 4x2 − √3x + 5 = 0 by the method of completing the square?

12 / 30

Equation (x+1)2 – x2 = 0 has _____ real root(s).

13 / 30

The roots of quadratic equation 5x2 – 4x + 5 = 0 are

14 / 30

If the equation x2+2(k+2) x+9k=0 has equal roots, then values of k are

15 / 30

Taylor purchased a rectangular plot of area 634 m2. The length of the plot is 2 m more than thrice its breadth. Find the length and breadth (approximate values).

16 / 30

Find the discriminant of the quadratic equation 3x2–5x+2=0 and hence, find the nature of the roots

17 / 30

If the solutions of the equation  x2+3x−18=0 are -6, 3 then the roots of the equation 2(x2+3x−18)=0 are

18 / 30

If a train travelled 5 km/hr faster, it would take one hour less to travel 210 km. The speed of the train is 

19 / 30

The altitude of a right triangle is 7 cm less than its base. If the hypotenuse is 13 cm, find the other two sides (in cm)

20 / 30

Factorize of  x2 +5x+6 =0 are

21 / 30

The roots of the quadratic equation x2+5x-14=0 are

22 / 30

If the sum of the roots of a quadratic equation is 5 and the product of the roots is also 5, then the equation is

23 / 30

What is the degree of a quadratic equation?

24 / 30

  If the equation x2 – kx + 1, have no real roots, then

25 / 30

Value of D when root of ax2 + bx + c = 0 are real and unequal will be

26 / 30

The value of p for equation 2x2 – 4x + p = 0 to have real roots will be

27 / 30

  The roots of the equation 9x2 – bx + 81 = 0 will be equal, if the value of b is

28 / 30

 For ax2 + bx + c = 0, which of the following statement is wrong?

29 / 30

 Every quadratic polynomial can have at most

30 / 30

The sum of two numbers is 27 and product is 182. The numbers are.

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EXAM PATTERN

PAPER 1

Subjects Questions / Marks
CDP 30 / 30
Language 1 30 / 30
Language 2 30 / 30
Mathematics 30 / 30
EVS 30 / 30
Total 150 / 150

NOTE : 

KARTET Paper I is for candidates who want to teach classes 1 to 5 / There is no negative marking and Each Question consist of 1 Mark

PAPER 2

Subjects  Questions / Marks
CDP 30 / 30
Language 1 30 / 30
Language 2 30 / 30
Maths, Science & Social 60 / 60
Total 150 / 150

NOTE : 

KARTET Paper II is for candidates who want to teach classes 6 to 8 / There is no negative marking and Each Question consist of 1 Mark

SOCIAL SCIENCE (60 Marks)

Social Science is the Subject in Paper 2 for the Students who are aspirants for Social Subject Teachers, It carries weightage of 60 marks and its very important that you prepare for this subject and Score Good Marks, 

MOCK EXAMS

Each Mock Exam consists of 30 Questions on Social Science Content and Pedagogy, attempt all to analyse your preparations

MOCK EXAM 1

KARTET / CTET

amk

Indian History 

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1 / 30

Which of the following Kushan kings, who assumed the title "the Lord of the Whole World"?

2 / 30

Which empire lasted the longest among the following?

3 / 30

Who was the main male God worshipped by Indus people?

4 / 30

Which among the following is a place in Larkana district of Sind province in Pakistan?

5 / 30

Where were the hymns of Rigveda composed?

6 / 30

Which of the following statement is wrong?

7 / 30

Who was the first Indian ruler who had territory outside India?

8 / 30

Upanishads are books on

9 / 30

Which king started the organization of Kumbh fair at Allahabad?

10 / 30

The eighth-century tripartite power struggle was among which of the following?

11 / 30

On which of the following systems of Hindu Philosophy , Shankaracharya wrote commentary in 9th century AD?

12 / 30

Which among the following Kavya of Sanskrit, deal with court intrigues & access to power of Chandragupta Maurya?

13 / 30

Who were the immediate successors of the Mauryas in Magadha?

14 / 30

The local name of Mohenjodaro is

15 / 30

In the Vedic age, who was the head of “Grama”?

16 / 30

Dholavira is situated at the bank of River

17 / 30

Who is the excavator of Harappa site?

18 / 30

Bimbisara was the founder of which one of the following dynasties?

19 / 30

Champa was the capital of which one of the following Mahajanapadas in Ancient India?

20 / 30

The traces of Janapadas and Mahajanpadas are found in___?

21 / 30

Harihara Raya I who ruled the Vijaynagara Empire for the period 1336-1356 belonged to which dynasty?

22 / 30

Who among the following Kushan Emperors was the first to introduce the gold coinage in India?

23 / 30

Whose achievements are recorded in the Allahabad Pillar inscription?

24 / 30

Who of the following was a contemporary of Alexander the Great?

25 / 30

Aryabhatta, believed to have been born in the 5th century AD, was a most renowned scholar of

26 / 30

Which among the following is the oldest dynasty?

27 / 30

What was the time period of Indus Civilization / Harappan Civilization?

28 / 30

Which among the following Mudra is the gesture of Buddha as depicted in his first sermon?

29 / 30

Who among the following foreigners was the first to visit India?

30 / 30

Who was the first Gupta ruler who assumed the title of Maharadhiraha?

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MOCK EXAM 2

KARTET / CTET

amk

Indian Geography 

 

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1 / 30

 Which of the following river has the largest river basin in India?

2 / 30

Which of the following river is called as the ‘Sorrow of Bengal’?

3 / 30

Which of the following hill ranges dominated by the  ‘Dodabeta’ peak?

4 / 30

Which of the following water bodies separates the Andaman from the Nicobar?

5 / 30

Which of the following region supports the Karewa formation?

6 / 30

Which of the following imaginary line almost divides India into two equal parts?

7 / 30

Which of the following passes cuts through the Pir Panjal range and links Manali and Leh by road?

8 / 30

Which of the following is the largest Archipelago in the world?

9 / 30

Which of the following geographical term related with the ''piece of sub-continental land that is surrounded by water''?

10 / 30

Which of the following is the oldest mountain range in India?

11 / 30

Which of the following is called the Southernmost Himalayas?

12 / 30

Which of the following the country does not share land boundary with India?

13 / 30

Which of the following country have common frontier with the Indian State like Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim?

14 / 30

Which of the following state is not crossed by the Tropic of Cancer?

15 / 30

The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is

16 / 30

Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India forming its boundary with Myanmar are collectively called as

17 / 30

Which one of the following is the longest river of the Peninsular India?

18 / 30

The river Narmada originates from

19 / 30

Which one of the following describes the drainage patterns resembling the branches of a tree?

20 / 30

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

21 / 30

Which of the following factor is responsible for low rainfall in the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats?

22 / 30

Which is the highest dam in India?

23 / 30

Which State is called the sugar bowl of India?

24 / 30

Which of the following cities are called the twin cities?

25 / 30

Where is the Duncan Pass located?

26 / 30

Which of the following Indian state touches the boundaries of the maximum number of other States?

27 / 30

Which of the following countries are divided by the Radcliffe Line?

28 / 30

Which of the following place has never got the vertical rays of the Sun?

29 / 30

Which of the following ministry monitered the functions of the National River Conservation Directorate ?

30 / 30

Which of the following is not one of the Era's of the Earth geological structure?

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MOCK EXAM 3

KARTET / CTET

amk

Indian Economy

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1 / 30

Which country is the largest trading partner of India

2 / 30

The focus of the Second Five Year Plan was

3 / 30

The National Development Council was established in the year

4 / 30

The concept of five year plan was borrowed from

5 / 30

The first planning commission in India was formed in the year

6 / 30

Which Five-Year plan focussed on "growth with social justice and equity"

7 / 30

Which of the following will not come under the proposed GST in India?

8 / 30

Deficit financing means that the government borrows money from the

9 / 30

What is the mainstay of Indian economy?

10 / 30

The Economic Survey of India is published by

11 / 30

India's National income is measured with the help of

12 / 30

The one rupee note bears the signature of

13 / 30

SIDBI stands for

14 / 30

Which of the following is not correct statement?

15 / 30

At present, in which sector 100 per cent FDI is allowed in India?

16 / 30

Which of the following is also known as International Bank for Reconstruction and Development?

17 / 30

Who among the following presented the first budget (interim) of Independent India?

18 / 30

Who among the following presented Union Budget maximum number of times?

19 / 30

Union Budget of India is presented by whom and in which house/ houses of the Parliament?

20 / 30

The paper currency was first started in India

21 / 30

The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development(NABARD) was founded in

22 / 30

Which Prime Minister launched the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana?

23 / 30

The Government of India earns maximum revenue from

24 / 30

Which among the followings is the oldest Public Sector Bank of India?

25 / 30

India changed over to the decimal system of coinage in the year

26 / 30

In which sector Indian Govt allow 100% foreign direct investment

27 / 30

Which Finance Minister has introduced the service tax concept in India?

28 / 30

Who is the first Finance Minister to have risen to be the President of India? 

29 / 30

Who has the sole right to issue bank notes of all denominations?

30 / 30

Who is the Chairman of Planning Commission?

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MOCK EXAM 4

KARTET / CTET

amk

Indian Polity 

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1 / 30

In a parliamentary form of Government the real powers of the state, are vested in the….?

2 / 30

Which of the following describes India as a secular state?

3 / 30

When was the first Parliamentary Forum on Water Conservation and Management constituted?

4 / 30

Which of the following is not a method used by the pressure group for achieving its objectives?

5 / 30

The Pressure Group tries to promote the interests of their members by exerting pressure on?

6 / 30

Which one of the following article deals with the tenure of the President?

7 / 30

The impeachment of the President is carried by which one of the following?

8 / 30

Which one of the following article deals with the pardoning power of the President?

9 / 30

The executive power of the Union is vested in which one of the below?

10 / 30

The National Judiciary Appointments Commission (NJAC) consists of the following persons?

11 / 30

Which article of the constitution of India provides the composition and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India?

12 / 30

Which of the following are the powers of the Supreme Court?

13 / 30

Who among the following appoints the Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court?

14 / 30

The Supreme Court of India at present contains the following number of Judges?

15 / 30

The total number of ministers including the prime ministers shall not exceed?

16 / 30

Who among the following shall communicate to the president all the decisions of the council of ministers under article 78?

17 / 30

Which one of the following article deals with the appointment of the Prime Minister and other ministers?

18 / 30

The Vice-President is the Ex-Officio Chairman of the ........?

19 / 30

Who can remove the Vice-President from his office?

20 / 30

The term of office of the Vice-president is as follows?

21 / 30

Which of the following article deals with the election of the Vice-president?

22 / 30

Which of the article deals with the grants in aid by the Union government to the states?

23 / 30

Which of the following duty is levied and collected by the Union government?

24 / 30

Which of the following tax is levied and collected by the Union government but the proceeds are distributed between the Union and states?

25 / 30

Which of the following taxes are imposed and collected by the state government?

26 / 30

Which of the following taxes are levied by the Union government but collected and appropriated by the states?

27 / 30

The representatives of the state in the Rajya sabha are elected by which one of the following?

28 / 30

Which of the following article of the Indian Constitution deals with the constitution of the Parliament of India?

29 / 30

Supreme Court held that the Preamble is not a part of the constitution in which of the following cases/case?

30 / 30

Which of the following amendment acts amended the Preamble of the Indian constitution?

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MOCK EXAM 5

KARTET / CTET

amk

Indian National Movement

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1 / 30

 Who was the founder of Aligarh movement?

2 / 30

Who among the following was a leader of Wahabi Movement?

3 / 30

Who stated that the Revolt of 1857 was “neither the first, nor national, nor war of independence”?

4 / 30

 With reference to the Swadeshi Movement during the Indian Freedom Struggle, which of the following statements is NOT correct?

5 / 30

Which Muslim leader joined the Home Rule League founded by Annie Besant?

6 / 30

Which of the following Act was criticized by Jawaharlal Nehru by his comment "Machine with all brakes, no engine"?

7 / 30

C Rajagopalachari formula was produced to remove the deadlock between which of the following political parties during Indian National Movement?

8 / 30

After the Battle of Buxar (1764), East India Company got the Diwani rights of which of the following places?

9 / 30

Which court was considered as the highest criminal court of appeal during the reign of East India Company?

10 / 30

Who is the author of ‘Poverty and Un-British Rule in India’?

11 / 30

The ‘Diwani’ of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa was given to the East India Company by the Treaty of 1765 with

12 / 30

Who called British Economic policy as ‘Colonial Economy’?

13 / 30

As per belief who wanted to use Indian National Congress as a safety valve?

14 / 30

Which of the following is not included in 3 Ps which constituted the methods of Indian National Congress?

15 / 30

Who was the Governor-General of India at the time of the revolt of 1857?

16 / 30

Bharat Shramjeevi news paper was founded by

17 / 30

Mitra Mela was founded in 1899 by

18 / 30

Who among the following was the first Indian to qualify for the Indian Civil Service?

19 / 30

Which of the following was/were the main reasons for the uprising of Royal Indian Navy in 1946?

20 / 30

During Second Round Table Conference, who was the lady representative of India?

21 / 30

Bhagat Singh and B.K. Dutt threw a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly on 8th April 1929 as a protest to which of the following Bill/Act??

22 / 30

Simon Commission was sent to India in 1928, at that time who was the Prime Minister of Britain?

23 / 30

What was/were the important features of Nehru Report?

24 / 30

Which among the following is not a literary work of Mahatma Gandhi?

25 / 30

Which among the following is not a correct statement regarding Jyotiba Phule?

26 / 30

During the Quit India Movement in which of the following place a parallel government was not formed?

27 / 30

Which of the following organization was not established by B.R. Ambedkar?

28 / 30

British Government appointed an Indian Statutory Commission to review the Government of India Act 1919, this commission is also known as?

29 / 30

 The resolution of Quit India Movement was passed in which of the following city?

30 / 30

Who of the following presided the historic Lahore session of 1929 in which demand of Poorna Swaraj was raised on the bank of river Ravi?

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MOCK EXAM 6

KARTET / CTET

amk

PEDAGOGY

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1 / 15

 In order to develop an understanding of democratic institutions, choose the most appropriate curricular approach from the following?

2 / 15

 On which of the following choices is the data best represented by a bar diagram?

3 / 15

The National Curriculum Framework (NCF), 2005 recommends that children’s school education must be linked with?

4 / 15

Which one of the following methods is most relevant for the teaching of historical facts/ historiography at the upper primary level?

5 / 15

Suppose a teacher has to teach the chapter, The Cold Desert—Ladakh’ in Class VII. Which one of the following methods would be most appropriate?  

6 / 15

Which value will you emphasize the least in the upper primary Social Science classroom from among the following?

7 / 15

What is the nomenclature change suggested by the National Curriculum Framework (NCF), 2005 for Civics? 

8 / 15

What is the purpose of summative assessment of students? 

9 / 15

Which one of the following projects on global warming’ is based on secondary sources?

10 / 15

A teacher provides some criteria to students and asks them to assess their projects on those bases. Which one of the following assessment measures has been adopted by the teacher? 

11 / 15

A teacher can make the explaining technique more effective.

12 / 15

. …….. learning activities are similar to case studies but usually focus on qualitative problems and gives students a deeper learning opportunity.

13 / 15

Which one of the following is not needed for learning activities outside the classroom?

14 / 15

A teacher is teaching poverty in IX. Which one of the following probing question he ask to develop critical thinking among learners ?

15 / 15

Social Studies is different from others fields of learning because its contents and meaning lay stress on?

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